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Tenant right to exclusive occupancy

If the tenant has signed a 1-yr lease on a single-family residence, does this mean that the tenant has the presumed right to exclusive occupancy of the property?  What if the landlord decides she wants to build an apartment over the garage and occupy the same residential property, with no change to the payment or any other terms in the lease?  ....Perplexed
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I would think with proper notice, that a landlord has the right to do this.
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